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EK123
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Default May 26, 2019 at 07:35 AM
  #1
Hi,

my sister in law had an episode of sadness (i'm careful not to define it as depression, cause maybe it isnt). her parents took her to a psychatrist and she gave her cipralex.
a month later she had what the doctors called, a hypomania episode.
later on one of the doctor came do define her as bipolar.
she was 17 years old with learning disabilities and other issues.

my question is: The fact that she had a hypomanic episode as a result of the cipralex, necessarily means she has a bipolar disorder, and that the hypomanic episode would have happen some way or another no matter what ?

Is this drug can affect individuals this way, who have no bipolar disorder?

Thanks.
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Smile May 27, 2019 at 03:11 PM
  #2
Hello EK: I'm sorry I'm not able to answer your question. However I noticed this is your first post here on PC. So I thought I would at least welcome you to Psych Central. One additional forum, here on PC, that may be of interest to you would be the partners of people & caregivers forum. Here's a link:

https://psychcentralforums.com/partn...ivers-support/

And then here are links to 6 articles, from Psych Central's archives, that discuss various aspects of the bipolar 2 experience:

What Bipolar II Disorder Really Looks & Feels Like

How Bipolar II is Different | Bipolar Laid Bare

Bipolar II: Anger, Angst & Understanding

What Helps Individuals with Bipolar II Disorder Successfully Manage Their Illness

https://blogs.psychcentral.com/bipol...dium=popular17

https://blogs.psychcentral.com/bipol...dium=popular17

I hope you find PC to be of benefit.

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Default May 28, 2019 at 06:57 AM
  #3
What’s the difference between bipolar I and II? - The SANE Blog

bipolar 2 is a real diagnoses. The highs and lows are more evened out that bipolar 1 but bipolar 2 also requires good management. Mania might be from the bipolar but maybe cipralex isnt the best choice of medication for her.

Best advice I can give you and your sister in law is to go back to the person who diagnosed her and prescribed this medication and let them know the issues she is having.
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Default May 28, 2019 at 02:45 PM
  #4
psychiatrists have different (and ever changing) opinions on this. as a practical matter, she should probably not be prescribed cipralex again, and if a drug is used for depression, the prescribing physician should know about this episode...she may, in the future, be given something to take with the drug for low mood, possibly a tranquilizer/antipsychotic, a benzodiazepine, or one of the newer anti-seizure drugs that are used to even out mood swings.
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